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Do you think the Great Tribulation will happen in this century?
I am asking non believers and trinitarians not to comment, if you start a debate in this thread about the existence of God, the trinity, etc. I will ban you, this is a serious thread that will stay on topic.
" 'Zion's Watch Tower' has, we believe, JEHOVAH for its backer, and while this is the case it will never beg nor petition men for support. When He who says: 'All the gold and silver of the mountains are mine,' fails to provide necessary funds, we will understand it to be time to suspend the publication."
CT Russell. God's Kingdom Rules ch.18 Stephen Lett said himself that Mother has more money leaving than coming in. There is a reason for the switch to tablets, and less content heavy magazines. They just sold the Brooklyn properties because they need the money. Now there are rumors that the preaching work is going to end and the pharisees are going to announce the great Tribulation is upon us. What does this have to do with the actual great Tribulation? Up until a couple years ago, the official teaching was that the "Lord's" day began in 1914. Now that day has been renamed to Jehovah's Day, even though they still claim we are in the last days. If they proclaim the Great Tribulation is here, they may very well fulfill that prophecy 2x. Let's assume that the Great Tribulation is WW3, because it has to be cut short or else no flesh would be saved. It is a well known fact that WW3 will be fought with nukes, some being equal to or larger than the tsar Bomba, this world War has the potential to fulfill that prophecy (great Tribulation being cut short). Perhaps we are on the brink of the great Tribulation or perhaps this is just another phase? If in fact the man of lawlessness is the Watchtower. I would expect WW3 to begin some time after they have announced the great Tribulation is here. This lie about the presence of Christ would still have to be active at some point when he really returns, or not. But there is a good chance that the 1914 doctrine might still be alive when Christ returns, what else does 2 thessalonians 2 mean when it says that they will not be saved because they took pleasure in unrighteousness? If 1914 expires, then the lie manifested itself into nothing and JWs would have repented from teaching and believing it, so why would Christ return to condemn repentant worshipers to death? I think, since this stuff surrounding Rutherford and spiritism is true, and the GB has made weird comments about there being undeniable proof that Christ began ruling in 1914, that they may have had a sign or prediction shown to them through some sort of spiritism, all it would take is an apparition or automatic writing by demon pretending to be an angel of light to mislead them. They would never suspect Satan to be misleading them, because they think they are anointed by Jehovah. OR, they have the arrogance to announce the great Tribulation is here because of all attacks they are getting from all sides, no angel of light being involved. Either way, it doesn't matter, if they say the great Tribulation is here, and WW3 begins afterwards (see Trump vs North Korea) they will become gods in the eyes of JWs, "surely they are appointed by Jehovah! They predicted the great Tribulation, etc."
Think about it, people have predicted that end of the world every year since Christ. Eventually someone is going to be right. When i used to gamble on forex pairs a few years ago (euUSD, etc.) I would place a bet in a binary options Broker. If I was betting that price would be above my execution line at the expiration of time, I would win, if it wasn't I would lose all the money placed on the bet. But if you keep betting that price will be higher each minute that passes, eventually you will be right, Because it is impossible that the pair will drop for eternity. This is called the martingale. I once martingaled 12 times before I was right and won back all the money I lost, I quit after that and trust me Jehovah punished me for my recklessness. Anyways, it entirely possible that all these false prophets will eventually be right about the end of the world after guessing for two thousand years. They have essentially used the martingale method I their prophecies, so the Watchtower could end up predicting the great Tribulation, being right about the timing but wrong about the reason.
JWs will be so convinced that the man of lawlessness is appointed by God, that he makes himself a god in God's Temple. Then when Revelation 11 begins, they will reject these two witnesses. And so, when Christ returns they will be judged because they did not take pleasure in righteousness. This is all an opinion of how the chain of events could play out based on the information available right now. What are your opinions about the great Tribulation? Some have said that Christ returns and then the 2 witnesses are appointed, I don't know how they come to that conclusion, but if you know, please share.
Hello there /forex! I actually fired this question off in /math and was met with crickets there. My question has to do with the math behind a sub-martingale betting strategy for Binary Options. Here's what I was thinking... Basically I want to see if there is a mathematical way to compare two betting styles and the % win necessary to be profitable trading binary options. I am not quite sure even of how you would set this up mathematically to solve your expected break-even point, after tinkering in excel, I found the number to be somewhere close to a 58.7% win rate on straightforward betting (with a 70% payout). Here's where it gets more cumbersome. If you were to approach the problem with a martingale style betting system, (whereby you double up your bets with each consecutive loss) would it have any impact on the % break even win rate? Lets assume the max consecutive losses I am willing to make is 4, is it more likely that I will reach a point where I have won all the money back to exceed my max loss (4 losses in a row = $75 max draw vs. probability of winning enough bets to overcome $75) and is the win rate to get there less than that of straightforward betting? For an example...
B1: $5, net win payout:$3.5, max loss:$5
B2: $10, net win payout:$2, max loss:$15
B3: $20, net win payout:$4, max loss:$35
B4: $40, net win payout:$8, max loss:$75
So based on probability, what is the necessary win rate to have a sub martingale (winning bias over my max loss of $75)...and is it lower than the win rate of straightforward betting? Sorry for not having a clue on how to calculate this...hopefully this has perked some interest and someone is up for the challenge. Thanks and sorry for the poorly explained example, I can try to clarify what I mean if its unclear. TL:DR Does the necessary win rate to be profitable on a fixed payout system change with a martingale strategy?
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